2013년 8월 30일 금요일
EC-COUNCIL 자격증 EC1-349 시험문제와 답
EC-COUNCIL EC1-349인증시험도 어려울 뿐만 아니라 신청 또한 어렵습니다.EC-COUNCIL EC1-349시험은 IT업계에서도 권위가 있고 직위가 있으신 분들이 응시할 수 있는 시험이라고 알고 있습니다. 우리 ITExamDump에서는EC-COUNCIL EC1-349관련 학습가이드를 제동합니다. ITExamDump 는 우리만의IT전문가들이 만들어낸EC-COUNCIL EC1-349관련 최신, 최고의 자료와 학습가이드를 준비하고 있습니다. 여러분의 편리하게EC-COUNCIL EC1-349응시하는데 많은 도움이 될 것입니다.
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시험 번호/코드: EC1-349
시험 이름: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
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NO.1 Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so
that
it can tie easily accessed at a later date.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
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NO.2 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D
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NO.3 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A
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NO.4 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C
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NO.5 During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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NO.6 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A
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NO.7 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D
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NO.8 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
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NO.9 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C
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NO.10 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C
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EC-COUNCIL인증 EC1-349시험이 너무 어려워 보여서 오르지못할 산처럼 보이시나요? 그건ITExamDump의 EC-COUNCIL인증 EC1-349시험문제에 대비하여 제작한EC-COUNCIL인증 EC1-349덤프가 있다는 것을 모르고 있기때문입니다. EC-COUNCIL인증 EC1-349시험에 도전하고 싶으시다면 최강 시험패스율로 유명한ITExamDump의 EC-COUNCIL인증 EC1-349덤프로 시험공부를 해보세요.시간절약은 물론이고 가격도 착해서 간단한 시험패스에 딱 좋은 선택입니다.
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시험 번호/코드: DC0-261
시험 이름: Dell (Dell Storage Networking Professional Exam - Version 2)
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NO.1 Which two tasks can Navisphere Analyzer perform? (Choose two.)
A. comparing archived and real-time performance data
B. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC switches
C. tracking performance trends for Dell / EMC storage arrays
D. tracking performance trends for hosts connected to Dell / EMC Storage Area Networks (SANs)
Answer: AC
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NO.2 Which statement best describes bi-directional mirroring as implemented by MirrorView ?
A. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system can be configured as the primary for one
mirror and a secondary for another mirror.
B. By utilizing two storage systems and one tape drive, the two storage systems are configured as a
primary and the secondary is backed up to tape.
C. By utilizing two storage systems, a single storage system is configured as the primary and the other
storage system is configured as the secondary.
D. By utilizing three storage systems, the two storage systems are configured as a primary and the third
storage system is configured as a secondary that is used to store the primary images.
Answer: A
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NO.3 What steps should you perform to create a copy of a source LUN in a second storage array, while
minimizing unavailability of the source LUN?
A. use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN, then take a snapshot on the second storage array
B. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the snapshot to the second storage
array
C. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then use SAN Copy to copy the source LUN to the second storage
array
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, run MirrorView to mirror the snapshot to the second array, then
use SAN Copy to synchronize the mirror with the source LUN
Answer: B
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NO.4 How many LUNs are required for the Clone Private LUN?
A. one per SP
B. one per clone
C. one per clone group
D. one per storage system
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which two states can a clone LUN be in before it can be fractured? (Choose two.)
A. consistent
B. synchronizing
C. synchronized
D. reverse out-of-sync
Answer: AC
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NO.6 You want User1 to have Administrator access to storage system A that is located in a branch office.
However, you want User1 to have read-only access to the remaining storage systems within the domain.
Which scenario best accomplishes this task?
A. User accounts must be either global or local because the user inherits the most restrictive role
assigned to the user.
B. Create a local account with Administrator access on storage system A, then create a global account for
User1 with Monitor access.
C. Create a global account with Monitor access on storage system A, then modify the account policy to
allow User1 to administer only storage system A.
D. Create a global account with Monitor access on the master node, then have User1 log in to storage
system A using the local default manager account.
Answer: B
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NO.7 Which utility should you use to add LUN management functionality to a server when using SAN Copy?
A. naviadm
B. admhost
C. admcopy
D. admsnap
Answer: B
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NO.8 Which three statements are correct about using SnapView? (Choose three.)
A. Snapshots can take mere seconds to create.
B. Snapshots may be created using the admhost CLI utility.
C. SnapView can take snapshots, or point-in-time copies of LUNs.
D. SnapView can make clones, or 100% duplicate copies of a LUN.
E. Snapshots are volume-level and thus able to restore specific files.
Answer: ACD
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NO.9 Which four LUN characteristics can be displayed in Navisphere Analyzer? (Choose four.)
A. Bytes Tx / Rx
B. Utilization (%)
C. Capacity (GB)
D. Response Time (ms)
E. Total Bandwidth (MB/sec.)
F. Total Throughput (I/O /sec.)
Answer: BDEF
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NO.10 How are the LUNs for the Write Intent Log (WIL) configured?
A. WIL LUNs are configured automatically.
B. After manually binding the LUNs, the WIL is automatically configured.
C. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on a per-array basis.
D. WIL LUNs must be manually bound and allocated on one array. The WIL is then automatically
replicated to the other array.
Answer: C
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NO.11 Which three statements are correct about SAN Copy? (Choose three.)
A. SAN Copy can be installed on any model CX array.
B. SAN Copy is a storage array-based Data Mover application.
C. SAN Copy transfers data over a Fibre Channel SAN, as opposed to an IP LAN.
D. SAN Copy sessions can be managed either by Navisphere Manager or by CLI.
Answer: BCD
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NO.12 You have installed SAN Copy. Which statement is true?
A. The storage array must be rebooted.
B. SAN Copy cannot be upgraded, except by a complete re-install.
C. Any LUN within the SAN is automatically made available to be copied.
D. The admhost utility must be installed on each storage array that Navisphere Manager resides on.
E. SAN Copy sessions can be managed through the Navisphere Manager Enterprise Storage window.
Answer: E
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NO.13 Which three statements are correct about clones? (Choose three.)
A. Clones can be copied using SAN Copy to a remote storage array.
B. Clones typically consume about 20% of the size of the source LUN.
C. Fractured clones can later be synchronized with the source LUN to update the contents.
D. Clones can be fractured from the source LUN, then mounted to a secondary host and accessed just
like another LUN.
Answer: ACD
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NO.14 You want to implement site level disaster recovery. Which two are valid options to consider? (Choose
two.)
A. Use SAN Copy to copy LUNs from the primary site to the recovery site.
B. Use SAN Copy to mirror a LUN from the primary site to the recovery site.
C. Use MirrorView to mirror LUNs from the primary site to another local array.
D. Use SnapView to create a clone, then use SAN Copy to copy the clone to the recovery site.
Answer: AD
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NO.15 You have a source LUN on a CX500 for which you maintain snapshots for tape backup. You need to
create a new snapshot for this source LUN but are unable to do so. You can create snapshots of other
source LUNs on the array. What is the most likely problem?
A. You have reached the maximum limit of 50 Cache LUNs.
B. You have reached the maximum limit of 8 snapshots per source LUN.
C. You have reached the maximum limit of 150 snapshots per storage system.
D. You have reached the maximum limit of 300 snapshots per storage system.
Answer: B
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NO.16 You are concerned that the loss of an SP might cause you to lose all of your existing snapshot
sessions. What should you do to prevent losing existing snapshot sessions?
A. add a UPS to the storage array
B. use PowerPath to gain failover support
C. select the Persistent mode when starting a snapshot session
D. Nothing, the Vaulting process automatically saves all snapshots to disk in the PSM LUN.
Answer: C
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NO.17 Which three operations are possible using clones? (Choose three.)
A. Up to eight clones can be made from a single source LUN.
B. While a clone is fractured, it can be connected to a host for use.
C. A fractured clone can be accessed for read and write operations.
D. A snapshot of a clone must be reverse synchronized prior to mounting.
E. A live clone can be mounted by a secondary host to use as a standard LUN.
Answer: ABC
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NO.18 You are connecting a CX700 to a CX500 through a fabric for Mirrorview. Which two zones must be
completed? (Choose two.)
A. Port 1 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
B. Port 1 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
C. Port 3 on SPA of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPA of the
CX500.
D. Port 3 on SPB of the CX700 must be zoned so that it can communicate with port 1 on SPB of the
CX500.
Answer: CD
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NO.19 SAN Copy sessions offer which three capabilities? (Choose three.)
A. providing content push or pull capability
B. offloading Storage Array processing onto hosts
C. migrating data from older arrays to newer arrays in the same SAN fabric
D. distributing and collecting content between the central location and branch offices
Answer: ACD
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NO.20 Which two are examples of how SnapView can be used in conjunction with MirrorView? (Choose two.)
A. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror for use at the remote site.
B. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then back up the snapshot to tape.
C. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the primary mirror and then mirror the snapshot to the
remote site.
D. SnapView can be used to take a snapshot of the remote mirror and then clone the snapshot for use at
the primary site.
Answer: AB
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시험 번호/코드: TT0-201
시험 이름: Convergence Technologies Profession (Convergence Technologies Professional 2007)
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NO.1 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B
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NO.2 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D
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NO.4 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C
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NO.5 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B
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NO.6 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D
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NO.7 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D
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NO.8 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B
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NO.9 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D
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NO.10 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D
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NO.11 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C
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NO.12 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C
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NO.13 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D
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NO.14 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C
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NO.15 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D
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NO.16 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B
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NO.17 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D
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NO.18 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B
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NO.19 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C
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NO.20 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C
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NO.1 A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and
network segment to see each other's traffic. Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Answer: C
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NO.2 Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim
that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
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NO.3 The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The
MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
Answer: B
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NO.4 Which of the following programming techniques should be used to prevent buffer overflow attacks?
A. Input validation
B. Nested loops
C. Signed applets
D. Automatic updates
Answer:A
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NO.5 Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota.
Answer: DE
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NO.6 A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers
and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these
changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Answer: D
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NO.7 WEP uses which of the following stream ciphers?
A. RC2
B. RC4
C. IKE
D. 3DES
Answer: B
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NO.8 A common tool used for wireless sniffing and war driving is:
A. S/MIME.
B. Sam Spade.
C. NetStumbler.
D. NESSUS.
Answer: C
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NO.9 To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following
preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Answer: B
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NO.10 IPSec uses which of the following protocols to provide traffic security? (Select TWO).
A. SSH
B. AH
C. PPTP
D. SSL
E. L2TP
F. Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP)
Answer: BF
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NO.11 Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won't support the product if the latest version is not
installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be
enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Answer: D
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NO.12 Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
Answer:A
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NO.13 A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the
following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)
B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Answer: B
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NO.14 A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
Answer:A
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NO.15 Spam is considered a problem even when deleted before being opened because spam:
A. verifies the validity of an email address.
B. corrupts the mail file.
C. wastes company bandwidth.
D. installs Trojan horse viruses.
Answer: C
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NO.16 A URL for an Internet site begins with 'https:' rather than 'http:' which is an indication that this web site
uses:
A. Kerberos.
B. PGP.
C. PKI.
D. SSL.
Answer: D
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NO.17 A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of
the following security principles?
A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Answer: B
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NO.18 A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
Answer: D
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NO.19 In order to secure web-based communications, SSL uses: (Select TWO).
A. PPP.
B. IPSec.
C. Public-key cryptography.
D. Blowfish encryption.
E. Symmetric cryptography.
F. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP).
Answer: CE
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NO.20 Which of the following is a common type of attack on web servers?
A. Birthday
B. Buffer overflow
C. Spam
D. Brute force
Answer: B
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NO.1 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 5 meters
Answer: C
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NO.2 Which of the following AT Attachment (ATA) standards supports transfer mode UltraDMA/133?
A. ATA-6
B. ATA-7
C. ATA-4
D. ATA-5
Answer: B
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NO.3 .Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D
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NO.4 HOTSPOT
Identify the S-Video port in the image given below.
DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a standard for high speed, high resolution digital display
invented by Digital Display Working Group (DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces
with a single connector. New video cards have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD
monitors come with a 15-pin VGA connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals
coming from DVI connections. However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three
main categories of connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only connector,
DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I connectors
are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set of links. Higher
resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual links. Reference.
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HDMI"
NO.5 .Your client currently has Windows 98 and wishes to upgrade to Windows XP. What is the most
efficient way to accomplish this goal?
A. Buy and install the Windows XP Upgrade.
B. Install a full copy of Windows XP.
C. First upgrade to Windows 2000, then to Windows XP.
D. You cannot upgrade from Windows 98 to XP.
Answer: A
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NO.6 Which of the following are the types of parental control?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Content filter control
B. Usage control
C. Monitoring control
D. Usage management tool
Answer: A,B,C,D
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NO.7 Which of the following is an international standard for energy efficient consumer products?
A. Energy Star rating
B. Standby mode
C. Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC)
D. Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI)
Answer: A
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NO.8 .Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D
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NO.9 DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the appropriate class of fire extinguisher in front of types of fires.
NO.10 Which of the following expansion slots can be used to plug a SCSI adapter? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. VESA
B. Slot 2
C. PCI
D. Slot 1
E. EISA
Answer: A,C,E
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NO.11 Which of the following color code is used for a PS/2 keyboard connector on new motherboards?
A. Purple
B. Pink
C. Green
D. Blue
Answer: A
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NO.12 .You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains that his
laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type of expansion
card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B
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NO.13 .Which of the following are types of LCD monitors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C
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NO.14 Which of the following Interfaces has the ability to support digital audio as well as video through a
single cable?
A. VGA
B. HDMI
C. SVGA
D. DVI
Answer: B
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NO.15 .Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD) card, MMC card,
and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B
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NO.16 .You are implementing wireless access at a defense contractor. Specifications say, you must
implement the AES Encryption algorithm. Which encryption standard should you choose?
A. WEP
B. WPA
C. TKIP
D. WPA 2
Answer: D
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NO.17 .Which of the following cryptographic algorithm uses public key and private key to encrypt or decrypt
data ?
A. Hashing
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Numeric
Answer: C
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NO.18 .Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A,C
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NO.19 Which of the following storage device uses SRAM or DRAM?
A. USB flash drive
B. Solid-state drive (SSD)
C. Blu-ray Disc
D. CD drive
Answer: B
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NO.20 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B
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NO.21 .Which of the following features are related to power management? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Hot plugging
B. Hibernate mode
C. Standby mode
D. Safe mode
Answer: B,C
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NO.22 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a
company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new
PC's. What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
Answer: C
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NO.23 .Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D
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NO.24 .Which of the following statements about the DVI-I connector are true? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It contains 4 more pins than the DVI-D connector.
B. It is used only for digital signal connection.
C. It is used for both digital and analog signal connections.
D. It contains 15 more pins than the DVI-D connector.
Answer: A,C
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NO.25 .In which of the following sizes are the Express Card modules available? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 54 mm Wide
B. 64 mm Wide
C. 20 mm Wide
D. 34 mm Wide
Answer: A,D
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NO.26 .Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. USB
B. DB-25
C. PS/2
D. DB-9
Answer: A,C
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NO.27 Which of the following are the basic options in Windows XP for putting your laptop to sleep when
you are not actively using it, but do not want to completely shut it down?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Low-power state
B. Sleeper state
C. Standby
D. Hibernate
Answer: C,D
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NO.28 .Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiMH
B. Lithium-Ion
C. Energizer
D. NiCad
Answer: B
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NO.29 HOTSPOT
Identify the CNR slot in the image given below.
NO.30 .Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to
protect a computer from new viruses?
A. Definition
B. Modules
C. Service pack
D. Hotfix
Answer: A
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시험 번호/코드: LX0-102
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 2)
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NO.1 It is desired to restrict access to the [IPC$] share to one specific machine. The setting hosts allow =
192.168.0.3 is added to the share configuration. Later it is discovered that other workstations may still
access it. What setting was forgotten in the share configuration? (Enter the parameter and any options or
values)
A.HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/
0,DENYHOSTS=0
Answer: A
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NO.2 Which command from the Samba Suite is used to retrieve information on the mapping between
NetBIOS names and IP addresses?
A. NMBLOOKUP
Answer: A
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NO.3 Which port is used for "NetBIOS-less" SMB traffic? Answer:
A. 445
Answer: A
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NO.4 By default, Windows XP requires that passwords on your Samba server:
A. Do not exceed 32 characters.
B. Contain both numbers and letters.
C. Are encrypted.
D. Are changed every 30 days.
Answer: C
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NO.5 In which section of the smb.conf configuration file is the logon script declared?
A. [homes]
B. [netlogon]
C. [global]
D. [profiles]
Answer: C
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NO.6 Which port must be open in a firewall to allow access to rdesktop?
A. 3389
Answer: A
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NO.7 The response times on a Samba server are gradually increasing, so it is decided to experiment with
various socket options in smb.conf. Which of the following are valid values for this parameter? (Choose
THREE correct answers)
A. TCP_NODELAY
B. SO_NOBROADCAST
C. SO_TXBUF
D. IPTOS_LOWDELAY
E. SO_KEEPALIVE
Answer: A, D, E
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NO.8 Which of the following development libraries are used to make Samba compatible with ADS? (Select
TWO correct answers.)
A. Kerberos
B. CUPS
C. LDAP
D. Win32
E. IMAP
Answer: A, C
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NO.9 Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Libraries
B. TDB files
C. Configuration files
D. Binaries
E. winbindd_privileged directory
Answer: B, C
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NO.10 When migrating files from a Windows server A to a Samba server B with the command 'net rpc share
migrate files -S A -destination=B -acls -attrs -U administrator', some files that originally belong only to a
Windows group (no user) will generate errors during the migration. Which option in smb.conf will force
such files to be mapped to the correct UNIX UID and GID?
A. use acl = yes
B. map group acls = yes
C. force unknown acl user = yes
D. inherit acls = no
Answer: C
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NO.11 When setting up roaming profiles in a Windows network which includes Windows 98 desktops, which
Samba parameter must be set?
A. logon drive
B. logon home
C. logon path
D. logon script
Answer: B
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NO.12 Which smb.conf configuration keyword determines the hostname resolution order?
A. use ads
B. name resolve order
C. use nsswitch.conf
D. use resolv.conf
Answer: B
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NO.13 Which of the following commands would you run to add your machine to an NT4 domain?
A. net rpc join -S PDC -UAdministrator%password
B. net ads join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
C. net rpc join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
D. net ads join -W PDC -nAdministrator%password
Answer: A
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NO.14 .How is VFS (Virtual File System) support enabled in Samba?
A. Samba does not support VFS.
B. Compile and load vfs.ko kernel module.
C. Compile and load vfs.ko and its dependent smbfs kernel modules.
D. Compile and load pvfs.ko kernel module.
E. Compile Samba with VFS module support.
Answer: E
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NO.15 .A ______ server stores NetBIOS names and IP addresses of SMB/CIFS clients.
A. WINS
Answer: A
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NO.16 After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they
receive an Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password.
B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.
C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.
D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.
Answer: B
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NO.17 Which are the FOUR parameters (in the correct order) to be set in the name resolve order directive, to
use the following name resolution order?
1. Use lmhosts file entries 2 Use a server especified in the 'wins server' directive
Use broadcast
Use default DNS lookup Answer:
A. LMHOSTSWINSBCASTHOST
Answer: A
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NO.18 The following output is generated when trying to obtain tickets from the Kerberos realm: # kinit
user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ Password for user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ kinit(v5): Clock skew too great while
getting initial credentials How can the problem be fixed? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ntpdate domaincontroller; hwclock -systohc
B. kinit -t
C. killall -HUP krb5kdc
D. Modify the time_sync value in the kdc.conf file.
E. Modify the clockskew value in the krb5.conf file.
Answer: A, E
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NO.19 Which of the following is true about the following share access properties? (Choose TWO correct
answers.) [projects]path = /data/projects read only = noadmin users = timo, taki, +managers
A. +managers will be resolved as a Winbind group.
B. The timo and taki users can manipulate files regardless of the file system permissions.
C. +managers will be resolved as a Unix group.
D. +managers is a builtin default Samba group.
E. The "admin users" can be applied only to print shares.
Answer: B, C
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NO.20 In /etc/smbldap-tools/ which file contains the DN and password for the LDAP manager?
A. smbldap.conf
B. ldap.conf
C. smbldap_bind.conf
D. slapd.conf
Answer: C
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NO.21 Which node type will use only NetBIOS broadcast requests using UDP broadcast?
A. b-node (type 0x01)
B. p-node (type 0x02)
C. m-node (type 0x04)
D. h-node (type 0x08)
Answer: A
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NO.22 When no WINS server is present, all name registrations and lookups are done by UDP _______.
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. unicast
D. None of the above.
Answer: A
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NO.23 The _____________ parameter in the smb.conf file will set hidden files in Linux to also be hidden in
windows. (Please specify ONLY the parameter with no value assignment.)
A. HIDEDOTFILES
Answer: A
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NO.24 Which of the following statements are true when creating NETBIOS names? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. NETBIOS names can only use alphanumeric characters.
B. You can use a '.' in a NETBIOS name.
C. You can use an '_' (underscore) in a NETBIOS name.
D. NETBIOS names must be UPPERCASE
E. NETBIOS names can be a maximum of 32 characters
Answer: B, C
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NO.25 What is the meaning of a NetBIOS hybrid node (h-node) type client?
A. Client performs a broadcast and does not query WINS.
B. Client queries WINS first, and then broadcasts.
C. Client broadcasts first, and then queries WINS.
D. Client only queries WINS and does not broadcast.
E. Client only queries lmhost local file.
Answer: B
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NO.26 Which command would create a machine account in Active Directory under the
Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers organizational unit?
A.net rpc join -m localhost -ldap="ldap.ldapserver.com:Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
B.rpcclient -c "join Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
C.net ads join ou="Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
D.net ads join "Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
Answer: D
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NO.27 There are multiple network interfaces on a server. Which parameters must you set in smb.conf to limit
on which interfaces Samba will accept connections? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. listen interfaces
B. bind interfaces only
C. interfaces
D. listen address
Answer: B, C
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NO.28 What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server
has the IP address 192.168.1.2?
A. option netbios-wins-servers 192.168.1.2;
B. option wins-netbios-servers 192.168.1.2;
C. option wins-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
D. option netbios-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
Answer: D
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NO.29 Which of the following commands will mount a remote Samba share when the user is Winuser and the
password is somepass?
A. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
B. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass \\SERVER\share
/media/sambashare
C. mount -t smbfs -o Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
D. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
Answer: A
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NO.30 Users are reporting that they can access all user home directories on the server in addition to their
own. What value must be added to the valid users parameter in the [homes] section of smb.conf to
disallow this behaviour? (Enter only the required value, do not include the parameter name)
A. %S
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which of the following methods of access, authentication, and authorization is the MOST secure
by default?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Answer: A
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NO.2 A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent:
A. password sharing.
B. escalation of privileges.
C. implicit deny.
D. administrative account lockout.
Answer: B
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NO.3 Which of the following should be performed if a smartphone is lost to ensure no data can be retrieved
from it?
A. Device encryption
B. Remote wipe
C. Screen lock
D. GPS tracking
Answer: B
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NO.4 Where are revoked certificates stored?
A. Recovery agent
B. Registration
C. Key escrow
D. CRL
Answer: D
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NO.5 Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting
network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports?
A. VLAN separation
B. Access control
C. Loop protection
D. DMZ
Answer: C
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NO.6 Centrally authenticating multiple systems and applications against a federated user database is an
example of:
A. smart card.
B. common access card.
C. single sign-on.
D. access control list.
Answer: C
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NO.7 Which of the following requires special handling and explicit policies for data retention and data
distribution?
A. Personally identifiable information
B. Phishing attacks
C. Zero day exploits
D. Personal electronic devices
Answer: A
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NO.8 Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA?
A. Private key
B. Symmetric key
C. Recovery key
D. Public key
Answer: D
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NO.9 A new enterprise solution is currently being evaluated due to its potential to increase the company's
profit margins. The security administrator has been asked to review its security implications. While
evaluating the product, various vulnerability scans were performed. It was determined that the product is
not a threat but has the potential to introduce additional vulnerabilities. Which of the following assessment
types should the security administrator also take into consideration while evaluating this product?
A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Code assessment
D. Risk assessment
Answer: D
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NO.10 Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server.?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Answer: C
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NO.11 Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack?
A. Memory addressing
B. Directory traversal
C. Initial vector
D. Session cookies
Answer: C
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NO.12 Which of the following facilitates computing for heavily utilized systems and networks?
A. Remote access
B. Provider cloud
C. VPN concentrator
D. Telephony
Answer: B
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NO.13 Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Common access card
C. Strong password complexity
D. Biometric authentication
Answer: A
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NO.14 With which of the following is RAID MOST concerned?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Baselining
Answer: C
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NO.15 In an 802.11n network, which of the following provides the MOST secure method of both encryption
and authorization?
A. WEP with 802.1x
B. WPA Enterprise
C. WPA2-PSK
D. WPA with TKIP
Answer: B
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NO.16 Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host
enumeration by sweep devices?
A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. IPv4
D. ICMP
Answer: D
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NO.17 WEP is seen as an unsecure protocol based on its improper use of which of the following?
A. RC6
B. RC4
C. 3DES
D. AES
Answer: B
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NO.18 Which of the following reduces the likelihood of a single point of failure when a server fails?
A. Clustering
B. Virtualization
C. RAID
D. Cold site
Answer: A
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NO.19 DRPs should contain which of the following?
A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel
B. Hierarchical list of critical systems
C. Hierarchical access control lists
D. Identification of single points of failure
Answer: B
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NO.20 Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended
recipient can decrypt the ciphertext?
A. Private
B. Escrow
C. Public
D. Preshared
Answer: C
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ITExamDump는 여러분이 빠른 시일 내에CompTIA CLO-001인증시험을 효과적으로 터득할 수 있는 사이트입니다.CompTIA CLO-001인증 자격증은 일상생활에 많은 개변을 가져올 수 있는 시험입니다.CompTIA CLO-001인증 자격증을 소지한 자들은 당연히 없는 자들보다 연봉이 더 높을 거고 승진기회도 많아지며 IT업계에서의 발전도 무궁무진합니다.
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시험 번호/코드: CLO-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
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NO.1 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C
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NO.2 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C
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NO.5 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C
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NO.6 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D
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NO.7 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A
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NO.8 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C
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NO.9 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A
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NO.10 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D
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NO.11 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C
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NO.12 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C
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NO.13 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D
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NO.14 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D
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NO.15 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D
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NO.16 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D
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NO.17 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A
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NO.18 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A
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NO.19 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A
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NO.20 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A
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